HIGH-QUALITY COMPTIA CAS-005 LATEST TORRENT - CAS-005 FREE DOWNLOAD

High-quality CompTIA CAS-005 Latest Torrent - CAS-005 Free Download

High-quality CompTIA CAS-005 Latest Torrent - CAS-005 Free Download

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q218-Q223):

NEW QUESTION # 218
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?

  • A. Quality assurance
  • B. Change management
  • C. Situational awareness
  • D. Compliance tracking

Answer: B

Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.
* ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.
* "The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.


NEW QUESTION # 219
A security engineer is given the following requirements:
* An endpoint must only execute Internally signed applications
* Administrator accounts cannot install unauthorized software.
* Attempts to run unauthorized software must be logged
Which of the following best meets these requirements?

  • A. Configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates
  • B. Maintaining appropriate account access through directory management and controls
  • C. Deploying an EDR solution to monitor and respond to software installation attempts
  • D. Implementing a CSPM platform to monitor updates being pushed to applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
To meet the requirements of only allowing internally signed applications, preventing unauthorized software installations, and logging attempts to run unauthorized software, configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates is the best solution. This approach ensures that only applications signed by trusted certificates are allowed to execute, while all other attempts are blocked and logged. It effectively prevents unauthorized software installations by restricting execution to pre-approved applications.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes application control mechanisms and the use of trusted certificates to enforce security policies.
* NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends application whitelisting and execution control for securing endpoints.
* "The Application Security Handbook" by Mark Dowd, John McDonald, and Justin Schuh: Covers best practices for implementing application control and managing trusted certificates


NEW QUESTION # 220
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner organizations theability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Select two).

  • A. ATTACK
  • B. TAXII
  • C. YAKA
  • D. STIX
  • E. CWPP
  • F. JTAG

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
D:STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E: TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A: CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.
B: YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
C: ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
F: JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not related to threat intelligence.


NEW QUESTION # 221
A security engineer needs to ensure production containers are automatically scanned for vulnerabilities before they are accepted into the production environment. Which of the following should the engineer use to automatically incorporate vulnerability scanning on every commit?

  • A. Integrated development environment
  • B. Container orchestrator
  • C. CI/CD pipeline
  • D. Code repository

Answer: C

Explanation:
CI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment) automates the testing, including vulnerability scanning, for every code commit before deploying to production. Code repository stores the code but does not handle scanning. Integrated development environment (IDE) aids developers in writing and testing code but does not enforce automated scanning.
Container orchestrator manages container deployment but does not directly address pre- production scanning.


NEW QUESTION # 222
A user reports application access issues to the help desk. The help desk reviews the logs for the user

Which of the following is most likely The reason for the issue?

  • A. The user inadvertently tripped the impossible travel security rule in the SSO system.
  • B. A threat actor has compromised the user's account and attempted to lop, m
  • C. The user is not allowed to access the human resources system outside of business hours
  • D. The user did not attempt to connect from an approved subnet

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the provided logs, the user has accessed various applications from different geographic locations within a very short timeframe. This pattern is indicative of the "impossible travel" security rule, a common feature in Single Sign-On (SSO) systems designed to detect and prevent fraudulent access attempts.
Analysis of Logs:
* At 8:47 p.m., the user accessed a VPN from Toronto.
* At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed email from Los Angeles.
* At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed the human resources system from Los Angeles.
* At 8:49 p.m., the user accessed email again from Los Angeles.
* At 8:52 p.m., the user attempted to access the human resources system from Toronto, which was denied.
These rapid changes in location are physically impossible and typically trigger security measures to prevent unauthorized access. The SSO system detected these inconsistencies and likely flagged the activity as suspicious, resulting in access denial.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"
* "Impossible Travel Detection," Microsoft Documentation


NEW QUESTION # 223
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